| Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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| ***** sterile man WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised. |
jeff | Tuesday, August 10, 2004 |
Question: is a man has a 0 sperm count is it alright for his wife to perform oral sex on him? |
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| Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+
Dear Jeff: Oral sex as a form of foreplay in the marital embrace by mutual consent has always been okay as long as the man does not climax. The sexual act must be completed in a normal fashion open to life. If the man is totally and irreversibly sterile, he would still be required to ejaculate vaginally since sterility is not medical absolute in most cases. There can still be .000009 percent chance of fertility. Besides, God may see fit to facilty a health sperm to impregnant one's wife. God Bless, Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum
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