Ask a Question - or - Return to the Faith and Spirituality Forum Index

Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
Jesus and The Father	Matthew	Tuesday, December 4, 2007
Question: Brother Ignatius, I'm sort of confused as to why Jesus referred to GOD as though He was something outside of Himself? I mean, i thought Jesus is GOD?! It confuses me. For instance when He was hanging on the cross, He cried out, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" I could understand i guess if He cried out "My Father, My Father, why have you forsaken me?" The wording that is used though makes it sound like GOD is something outside of Jesus (even though I know Jesus IS God, it still confuses me). Catholic doctrine teaches us that The Father and Son are equal in their nature, and that One is not subordinate to the other, but some of the language that Jesus uses regarding The Father makes it sound like The Father is stronger or more powerful? I feel bad thinking these things because I feel like Jesus is upset at me for thinking these things, but they boggle my mind. Thanks Brother. God Bless, Matthew
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM Dear Matthew: Jesus is showing his humanity and his submission and obedience to the Father, which is a model for us. In Matthew 27:46 where Jesus says, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" the Navarre Bible Commentary explains: [These are] words from Psalm 22:2, which our Lord uses to show the physical and moral pain he is suffering... The Navarre Bible commentary on Matthew 26:36-46 (in the story of Christ's agony in the Garden) gives us a clue to your question. Here our Lord allows us to glimpse the full reality and exquisite sensitivity of his human nature. Strictly speaking, Christ, because he has complete self-control, could have avoided showing these limitations. However, by letting them express themselves, we are better able to understand the mystery of his genuine humanness -- and to that extent, better to imitate it... Bottomline is that when Jesus is relating to the Father in this way it does not depreciate that Jesus is co-equal with the Father and the Spirit as the Second Person of the Trinity. It is rather an expression from his human nature, as He was FULLY God and FULLY Man, as a model for us in how we are to relate to God ourselves. I am sure there are some other aspects of this that are deep in theology, but I think this essential aspect is one of the basic explanations. God bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum

Question Title

Posted By

Question Date

Jesus and The Father

Matthew

Tuesday, December 4, 2007

Question:

Brother Ignatius,

I'm sort of confused as to why Jesus referred to GOD as though He was something outside of Himself? I mean, i thought Jesus is GOD?! It confuses me. For instance when He was hanging on the cross, He cried out, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?"

I could understand i guess if He cried out "My Father, My Father, why have you forsaken me?" The wording that is used though makes it sound like GOD is something outside of Jesus (even though I know Jesus IS God, it still confuses me).

Catholic doctrine teaches us that The Father and Son are equal in their nature, and that One is not subordinate to the other, but some of the language that Jesus uses regarding The Father makes it sound like The Father is stronger or more powerful? I feel bad thinking these things because I feel like Jesus is upset at me for thinking these things, but they boggle my mind. Thanks Brother.

God Bless,
Matthew

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM

Dear Matthew:

Jesus is showing his humanity and his submission and obedience to the Father, which is a model for us.

In Matthew 27:46 where Jesus says, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" the Navarre Bible Commentary explains:

[These are] words from Psalm 22:2, which our Lord uses to show the physical and moral pain he is suffering...

The Navarre Bible commentary on Matthew 26:36-46 (in the story of Christ's agony in the Garden) gives us a clue to your question.

Here our Lord allows us to glimpse the full reality and exquisite sensitivity of his human nature. Strictly speaking, Christ, because he has complete self-control, could have avoided showing these limitations. However, by letting them express themselves, we are better able to understand the mystery of his genuine humanness -- and to that extent, better to imitate it...

Bottomline is that when Jesus is relating to the Father in this way it does not depreciate that Jesus is co-equal with the Father and the Spirit as the Second Person of the Trinity. It is rather an expression from his human nature, as He was FULLY God and FULLY Man, as a model for us in how we are to relate to God ourselves.

I am sure there are some other aspects of this that are deep in theology, but I think this essential aspect is one of the basic explanations.

God bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below:
Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum.
Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum
Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum
Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum
Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum