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Question Title Posted By Question Date
Question on condoms/HIV Rachel Monday, April 9, 2007

Question:

Brother,

I know all of the news reports would have us all think that the Vatican is on the verge of "permitting condoms" for married couples when one spouse is infected with a serious disease such as HIV. I don't think the Vatican is about to change ANYTHING as far as the morality of condoms and I think the Church has been right-on from the beginning about it, but I thought of a scenario which I'm not sure would be permitted or not. If you'll bear with me, I'll bore you with the details :)

Let us say that there is a couple in Africa, where the husband has solicited prostitutes and is either likely or proven to be HIV positive. His wife obviously does not want to contract the disease via sexual transmission, due to fear for her own life and that of any future children. Let us assume that the man is pressuring the wife to have sex with him. What may the woman do in order to protect herself from this virus?

Now, the wife CANNOT insist that the man wear a condom and then consent to the marital act, because that would be insisting on something immoral in order to obtain a moral end. I know that there are some theologians who would claim that the woman is obliged to engage in the marital act regardless of her husband's illness. Personally I think this is hogwash, and it flies in the face of the Church's teaching on self-defense, as well as the Church's teaching on marriage for the good of both spouses. That being said...

Would it be permissible for the WOMAN to wear a female condom (or some such barrier-method of contraception), assuming that she DID NOT INTEND to engage in sexual relations with her husband? This would assume that any intercourse that the couple engaged in was an act of coercion on the part of the husband, and that the woman did not "consent" in the traditional sense. This would, I believe, put the act in the category of rape. Women are, from what I understand, allowed to "protect" themselves against the semen of an unwanted "attacker." Would the woman be morally permitted to do such a thing in order to protect herself against a potentially deadly threat to her health? I was just curious, as I had never thought of that scenario before...Thank you in advance, sorry for the length.

Peace,
Rachel

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM

Dear Rachel:

The virtue of chastity belongs to the state of marriage too; it is not just for the unmarried.

In marriage, the virtue of chastity relates not only to fidelity to the marriage but also to the proper ordering of marital relations. The sexual faculty is not to be abused in or out of marriage. Marital relations are to be a mutual self-giving of one another to each other.

This means that using sex as a weapon (e.g., the wife's mad at me and is withholding sex to punish me) or using sex as a lustful demand or demand of power (e.g. my husband demands sex from me even when I do not desire it -- and perhaps even pressures me or forces me) VIOLATES this mutual self-giving and thus violates the virtue of chastity.

In the United States, in most jurisdictions, if a husband forces his wife to have sex he can be brought up on charges of rape or some other charge of sexual assault. If a person who knows he has HIV forces someone, even his wife, to have sex then other changes can be applied in addition to sexual battery.

Regardless of the state of civil law on these matters, the moral law in such scenarios remains the same.

If a husband contracts HIV (regardless of how) and insists that his wife have sex, she has the right, under God, to refuse. If the husband will not relent, then she as the right to separate from him to protect herself.

In the old days there was a legal instrument called a "Legal Separation." This legal document divided the property, appointed custody of children, assigned child support and/or alimony but left the marriage technically intact under civil law.

That procedure is rarely if ever used these days. Thus, bishops have given permission for a woman to divorce her husband with the understanding that as far as the Church is concerned she is still married and the "divorce," in the eyes of the Church, is nothing more than a "legal separation" to protect her rights and safety. She remains married under God, of course, unless and until such time the Church may determine that a Sacramental Marriage never existed in the first place.

There is no Catholic divorce. Divorce is not possible if one truly has a Sacramental marriage. No civil court, no priest, no marriage tribunal, no pope can terminate a valid sacramental marriage. But, one can be separated for the protection and good of the spouses and the children if necessary.

Thus, the solution to the wife in your story is that she needs to leave her husband to protect herself from sexual battery and worse. The Church will support her in this, even if it means a divorce to establish the protection of her rights under the law, as long as she understands that she remains married under God and the Church unless the Church determines a Decree of Nullity.

Barrier methods prevent pregnancy by preventing the sperm from meeting up with the egg (thus the barrier), and do nothing to prevent sexually transmitted diseases of any kind. The disease is transmitted from the contaminated semen through the membranes of the vagina. Only a male condom can prevent the semen from entering the vagina entirely (assuming no leaks, etc.)

But, even the use of a male condom does not actually protect one from the virus. I know the popular media and pro-sex people promote such practice as "safe-sex," but the virus is smaller than the spaces between molecules in the latex of a condom and thus it can potentially get through the latex to infect one's partner. The only "safe-sex" is "no sex."

The only way to truly protect herself is to run out the door to get away from her abuser, if she can.

In the event that she cannot get away from her husband who is, in essence, about to attack her, perhaps it can be morally licit to ask her husband to put on a condom (which is the only thing that might reduce chances of infection at least, but, as I mentioned does not guarantee prevention). Her motivation here is not birth control, but as self-defense against a diseased attacker. But, then she needs to get out and away from her husband as soon as possible.

By the way, I do not think the "openness to life of every marital act" applies to rape. This is not a "marital act" that even remotely relates to a "mutual self-giving," but is, rather, a brutal sexual attack.

That is my take on this, at least. I would have to consult with a moral theologian to get the nuanced particulars on the last two paragraphs.

One thing is for sure, however, that if one becomes pregnany from rape, a baby may not be killed by procured abortion or by "day after" pills and the like. Once life is created, regardless of how it came about, that life must be protected.

I hope this helps.

God bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary


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