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Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
*** Marital Embrace w/ husband not reaching climax... WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.**	Peter	Monday, December 6, 2004
Question: Brother Ignatius Mary, Thank you and God Bless you for all you do for us. For all the questions that you have answered and all the times that you have put a smile on my face, I truly thank you. My question to you Brother: Is it sinful for a married couple that is practicing NFP (and is truly always open to life...not using NFP for contraception but rather, for serious, just motives) to engage in the marital embrace and cease the embrace after the wife achieves climax and prior to the husband achieving climax? Is it sinful for the husband and wife to engage in oral sex, where the husband brings the wife to climax while the wife stops performing the oral act prior to the husband climaxing? If deemed sinful, is it mortal or venial? God Bless and again thank you Brother for taking the time to answer.
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM Dear Peter: Thank you for your blessing. As I understand it, the key issue in foreplay and afterplay is whether or not the man ejaculates. It is sinful to participate in any sexual activity that results in ejaculation outside of the vagina. Thus oral sex that does not end in the man's ejaculation is not sinful. As for ending intercourse after the wife climaxes but before ejaculation, even if no ejaculation outside of the vagina takes place, seems to me to be a contraceptive mentality as it closes the possibility of life from the sex act. It is best to practice NFP in the way that it was intended. Abstinance offers a blessing that comes from its discipline and committment to each other. It enhances the marital embrace during the times that it is okay and deepens the bond of love. As the Catechism explains: 2370 Periodic continence, that is, the methods of birth regulation based on self- observation and the use of infertile periods, is in conformity with the objective criteria of morality. These methods respect the bodies of the spouses, encourage tenderness between them, and favor the education of an authentic freedom. In contrast, "every action which, whether in anticipation of the conjugal act, or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible" is intrinsically evil. God Bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum

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Marital Embrace w/ husband not reaching climax...
WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.

Peter

Monday, December 6, 2004

Question:

Brother Ignatius Mary,

Thank you and God Bless you for all you do for us. For all the questions that you have answered and all the times that you have put a smile on my face, I truly thank you.

My question to you Brother: Is it sinful for a married couple that is practicing NFP (and is truly always open to life...not using NFP for contraception but rather, for serious, just motives) to engage in the marital embrace and cease the embrace after the wife achieves climax and prior to the husband achieving climax?

Is it sinful for the husband and wife to engage in oral sex, where the husband brings the wife to climax while the wife stops performing the oral act prior to the husband climaxing?

If deemed sinful, is it mortal or venial?

God Bless and again thank you Brother for taking the time to answer.

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM

Dear Peter:

Thank you for your blessing.

As I understand it, the key issue in foreplay and afterplay is whether or not the man ejaculates. It is sinful to participate in any sexual activity that results in ejaculation outside of the vagina. Thus oral sex that does not end in the man's ejaculation is not sinful.

As for ending intercourse after the wife climaxes but before ejaculation, even if no ejaculation outside of the vagina takes place, seems to me to be a contraceptive mentality as it closes the possibility of life from the sex act.

It is best to practice NFP in the way that it was intended. Abstinance offers a blessing that comes from its discipline and committment to each other. It enhances the marital embrace during the times that it is okay and deepens the bond of love. As the Catechism explains:

2370 Periodic continence, that is, the methods of birth regulation based on self- observation and the use of infertile periods, is in conformity with the objective criteria of morality. These methods respect the bodies of the spouses, encourage tenderness between them, and favor the education of an authentic freedom. In contrast, "every action which, whether in anticipation of the conjugal act, or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible" is intrinsically evil.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below:
Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum.
Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum
Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum
Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum
Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum