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Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
Heavy Petting	sean	Wednesday, February 15, 2017
Question: Dear brother, you answered a question from jake some time back last October in which you said "heavy petting" even as far as oral copulation, was morally licit as long as ejaculation did not occur. In moral theology manuals, such as Jone, this kind of thing would be classed as mutual masturbation in that the sexual faculty is used for a purpose not directed towards procreation, in other words a mortal sin. Can you clarify this please. God bless, Sean
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OMSM(r), CCL, LTh, DD, LNDC Dear Sean: From what I have been able to find Heribert Jone, in his book, does not say what you think he said. In fact, here is a quote about anal sex, "it is neither sodomy nor a sin if intercourse is begun in the rectal manner with the intention of completing it in the natural manner" (Jone "Moral Theology" 757). Thus, if this act is foreplay with vaginal ejaculation only, it hardly is a problem with oral sex. The key is that ejaculation must only be vaginal. Foreplay of whatever kind is not "mutual masturbation." Masturbation is an action for its own sake. A husband and wife has a purpose of sexual activity as a mutual self giving of each to the other. In addition to procreation, sex is to bond to each other for the good of the marriage and family. This includes foreplay as a prelude to vaginal intercourse. There is no moral objection to this. God Bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum

Question Title

Posted By

Question Date

Heavy Petting

sean

Wednesday, February 15, 2017

Question:

Dear brother,
you answered a question from jake some time back last October in which you said "heavy petting" even as far as oral copulation, was morally licit as long as ejaculation did not occur.

In moral theology manuals, such as Jone, this kind of thing would be classed as mutual masturbation in that the sexual faculty is used for a purpose not directed towards procreation, in other words a mortal sin.

Can you clarify this please.

God bless,
Sean

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OMSM(r), CCL, LTh, DD, LNDC

Dear Sean:

From what I have been able to find Heribert Jone, in his book, does not say what you think he said. In fact, here is a quote about anal sex, "it is neither sodomy nor a sin if intercourse is begun in the rectal manner with the intention of completing it in the natural manner" (Jone "Moral Theology" 757). Thus, if this act is foreplay with vaginal ejaculation only, it hardly is a problem with oral sex. The key is that ejaculation must only be vaginal.

Foreplay of whatever kind is not "mutual masturbation." Masturbation is an action for its own sake. A husband and wife has a purpose of sexual activity as a mutual self giving of each to the other. In addition to procreation, sex is to bond to each other for the good of the marriage and family. This includes foreplay as a prelude to vaginal intercourse. There is no moral objection to this.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below:
Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum.
Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum
Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum
Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum
Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum