Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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Indulgences | Anne | Tuesday, October 19, 2004 |
Question: Dear Brother Ignatius, I am sorry to hear about your illness. I hope you will be well soon. One question though: I was asked, "since when has the Church taught about indulgences?" I know the power of confering indulgences was granted by Christ to the Church. Can you help me give a good explanation? any reading from the Early Fathers etc... ? Thank you and God Bless you. Anne |
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Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+
Dear Anne: Thank you for your prayers for my illness. Actually I am chronically ill and disabled, but this last week has been far worse than usual. I am feeling better, barely, and can work for short periods -- hence trying to catch up on these Q&As. Prayers are always appreciated. The Encyclopedia article, Indulgences, gives not only an explantion of what Indulgences are and are not, but also references some church documents and Church Fathers. In doing a quick survey of Church Fathers, the idea of indulgences is taught by Tertullian in A.D. 200; St. Cyprian of Carthage in A.D. 251; and St. Ambrose in A.D. 387. These teachings were not invented by these men, but mentioned by them. This means the idea of Indulgences was already in play by the time they wrote what they wrote. Thus, the teaching on Indulgences, implied in Scripture itself, was first referred to in writing as early as A.D. 200 and most certainly taught and believed before then. So the bottomline answer: Indulgences have been taught by the Church since the beginning and most certainly by A.D. 200 when Tertullian made reference to this teaching (that already existed). God Bless,
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