Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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The Baptism of John the Baptist | Robert | Tuesday, October 12, 2004 |
Question: Dear Brother, I hope this question is not a waste of time. I am teaching catechism and while I was doing some research on the sacraments for class I came across this curiousity. Was the baptism of John the Baptist efficacious? I am not talking about his baptism of Jesus (that's a whole other question) but rather all the other baptisms he did. If they were efficacious, how so? I have taught my students that baptism must be trinitarian to be Christian baptism. John's surely wasn't. So what was it? |
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Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+
Dear Robert: Waste of time? Hardly. This is a very good question. The short answer is "no", the baptism of John was not efficacious in grace, it did not confer grace. The Council of Trent infallibly declared: If anyone shall say that the baptism of John has the same force as the baptism of Chirst let him be anathema (Canons on the Sacrament of Baptism; can 1) Thus we know for certain that the baptisms of John does not have the efficaciousness of the baptism of Chirst. Here is the teaching of St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa:
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