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Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
Jesus calling Mary	Anthony	Thursday, March 29, 2012
Question: Brother, Why did Our Lord call His Mother, "Woman"? I read several comments on the internet and most of them say it was out of respect for her. Some of them also said that it was the custom among Jews to address their mothers like this during Jesus' time on earth. Other articles I read said that Mary was the fulfillment of the prophecy made in Genesis 3:15 where the woman would crush the head of the serpent. I'm confused. Thanks for your reply and God bless you.
Question Answered by Dear Anthony: While there is no extant ancient example of a son addressing his mother in this way, we do know that addressing a female as "woman" was a title of respect and endearment. We find examples of this is John 2:4; 4:21; 8:10; and 20:13. Genesis 3:15 is the reverse of the instance at the Wedding at Cana (John 2:4). In Genesis, the Eve prompted Adam to to defy the Lord and drag the human family into sin. At Cana, our Blessed Mother, the New Eve, prompts Jesus, the New Adam, to initiate his mission of salvation. [Source: Ignatius Catholic Study Bible] God Bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum

Question Title

Posted By

Question Date

Jesus calling Mary

Anthony

Thursday, March 29, 2012

Question:

Brother,

Why did Our Lord call His Mother, "Woman"? I read several comments on the internet and most of them say it was out of respect for her. Some of them also said that it was the custom among Jews to address their mothers like this during Jesus' time on earth. Other articles I read said that Mary was the fulfillment of the prophecy made in Genesis 3:15 where the woman would crush the head of the serpent. I'm confused.

Thanks for your reply and God bless you.

Question Answered by

Dear Anthony:

While there is no extant ancient example of a son addressing his mother in this way, we do know that addressing a female as "woman" was a title of respect and endearment. We find examples of this is John 2:4; 4:21; 8:10; and 20:13.

Genesis 3:15 is the reverse of the instance at the Wedding at Cana (John 2:4). In Genesis, the Eve prompted Adam to to defy the Lord and drag the human family into sin. At Cana, our Blessed Mother, the New Eve, prompts Jesus, the New Adam, to initiate his mission of salvation.

[Source: Ignatius Catholic Study Bible]

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below:
Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum.
Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum
Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum
Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum
Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum