Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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re:re:birth control Q by Farrell | Rachel | Saturday, September 25, 2004 |
Question: Brother: For example, if a Catholic woman is married to a Protestant man and he insists on using condoms regardless of her constant entreaties, it seemed to be your opinion (correct me if I am wrong) that the woman should refuse to have sex with her husband, regardless of the effect on the marriage. The article paraphrases the document, but it says that there is a hierarchy of goods in regard to marital relations. They go something like this:
In your earlier post, were you referring to chemical birth control alone? I would just like clarification for myself and others so that no one unnecessarily threatens the integrity of their marriage. -Rachel |
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Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+
Dear Rachel: I had not seen this document at the time I offered the opinion. As is always to be done, when Rome Speaks, the debate is Ended. Now that this document has been presented, there is no need to appeal to opinion. Appeal must be made to this document on this subject. Thus I retract the opinion, and submit to the Church and gladly so. I hate giving mere opinion anyway. The URL you gave, however, is not the address to the document. Here is a link to the document: VADEMECUM FOR CONFESSORS CONCERNING SOME ASPECTS OF THE MORALITY OF CONJUGAL LIFE Thanks for bringing this to my attention. This subject comes up with some regularity. God Bless, Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum
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