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Question Title Posted By Question Date
Who has gone to heaven? Michael Saturday, September 25, 2004

Question:

Can you help give me some insight into these two seemingly contradictory passages from the Old and New Testaments?

2 KINGS 2:11 "As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind."

JOHN 3:13 "No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven–the Son of Man."

Thank you.


Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+


Dear Michael:

John 3:13 is actually an formal declaration of the Divinity of Jesus. As is commented in the Navarre Bible Commentary, "No one has gone up into heaven and, therefore, no one can have perfect knowledge of God's secrets, except God himself who became man and came down from heaven..."

"No one has ever gone into heaven"
is an allusion to the Ascension which will show that Jesus really did come from heaven.

2 Kings 2:11 does indicate that Elijah was taken into heaven, a destiny similar to Enoch, who walked with God (cf. Gen 5:21-24).

Although this appears to be a contradiction, it is not. John 3:13 is a comment not about whether anyone up to that time had been to heaven, but was an allusion to the Ascension of Jesus as well as a formal declaration of the Divinity of Jesus. This being the case that context must be remembered when trying to interpret and compare these two passages.

In addition, the biblical writers, as do all us today, use absolute language as a generalization. How often do we say something like, "I NEVER get a break" or "EVERYTIME I have an appointment I cannot find my car keys." These declarations are not literally true but exaggerations of what appears, at least, to be a common event.

The above example is the use of generalize language based upon mere perception, but we also may use such language in referring to a objective fact. The Bible gives us an excellent example of this.

Romans 3:23 tells us, "...all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God". If this is to be taken on face value then St. Paul would have been a heretic since both Jesus and Mary did not sin and did not fall short. The expression "all" in this context refers to the normal, the usual way of things. It is true that ALL of us sin, but this does not preclude possible exceptions. Jesus and the Blessed Mother were exceptions.

At the time Jesus made his remarks in John 3:13 he had not been to the Cross yet. Thus the Old Testament Saints were still in the portion of Hades (abode of the dead) called Abraham's Bosom. It was in that period between the death and resurrection of Jesus that he visited hell (that is, Abraham's bosom) and "set the captives free", that is brought them into heaven.

Thus with the rare exception of Elijah, and perhaps Enoch, no one had entered heaven except the one who was in heaven -- God (and his angels).

Therefore these two passages do not contradict.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary


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