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Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
***** Addendum to Sex and the Catholic Church WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.	Cindie	Saturday, September 4, 2004
Question: I have some more questions to add to my previous post. Question #3 ad infinitum: If sex in a marriage is only to propogate the species and for conception only, then does it follow that menopausal women must stop having sex because they are no longer "child-bearing"? And, if two people who are past their child-bearing years marry, are they to not have sex because THEY can't have children? And if said menopausal woman stops allowing her husband into her bed, and he resorts to masturbation, then that is a sin? Or the wife who has refused her husband's advances resorts to masturbation because she can no longer conceive through sex as the Church dictates? And, outside of "sex" meaning a person's gender, doesn't Webster define "sex" as sexual intercourse? A person cannot have intercourse with him/herself (and "toys" are not considered in this discussion).
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+ Dear Cindie: Again, you have misunderstood the purpose of sex in marriage as taught by the Church. I can see why you are confused about my answers; you have been mis-educated. I think you need to confront your priests and teachers and find out their qualifications because based on your questions you have not be taught the faith accurately. The Catechism states: 1601 "The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life, is by its nature ordered toward the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring; this covenant between baptized persons has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament." This paragraph identifies TWO purposes of marital sex: 1) for procreation; 2) for the good of the spouses. The phrase, "for the good of the spouses" refers to the bonding of the husband and wife through the marital embrace. Thus, if a person is sterile they can still be married. It a person is beyond childbearing age, they can still be married. Similarly, a married couple once the woman is not fertile anymore, or due to any other condition that develops during the marriage that makes having children impossible, the couple may still have sex because of the bonding of the couple with each other in the marital embrace remains a bonding factor and an issue of the health of the marriage. Again, masturbation is a grave sin no matter what. There is no circumstance in a marriage that permits masturbation. Even if one of the spouses can no longer have intercourse, masturbation is still a sin. In such a case, sexual intercourse will just not be a part of that marriage any longer. By the way, a person who is single and cannot have intercourse, in a permanent state of impotence, cannot get married since the marriage can never be consummated. If permanent impotence takes place after the couple are already married, then they will have to live without that aspect of the marital embrace as husband and wife. God bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum

Question Title

Posted By

Question Date

*****
Addendum to Sex and the Catholic Church
WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.

Cindie

Saturday, September 4, 2004

Question:

I have some more questions to add to my previous post.

Question #3 ad infinitum: If sex in a marriage is only to propogate the species and for conception only, then does it follow that menopausal women must stop having sex because they are no longer "child-bearing"? And, if two people who are past their child-bearing years marry, are they to not have sex because THEY can't have children? And if said menopausal woman stops allowing her husband into her bed, and he resorts to masturbation, then that is a sin? Or the wife who has refused her husband's advances resorts to masturbation because she can no longer conceive through sex as the Church dictates?

And, outside of "sex" meaning a person's gender, doesn't Webster define "sex" as sexual intercourse? A person cannot have intercourse with him/herself (and "toys" are not considered in this discussion).

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+

Dear Cindie:

Again, you have misunderstood the purpose of sex in marriage as taught by the Church. I can see why you are confused about my answers; you have been mis-educated. I think you need to confront your priests and teachers and find out their qualifications because based on your questions you have not be taught the faith accurately.

The Catechism states:

1601 "The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life, is by its nature ordered toward the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring; this covenant between baptized persons has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament."

This paragraph identifies TWO purposes of marital sex: 1) for procreation; 2) for the good of the spouses.

The phrase, "for the good of the spouses" refers to the bonding of the husband and wife through the marital embrace.

Thus, if a person is sterile they can still be married. It a person is beyond childbearing age, they can still be married.

Similarly, a married couple once the woman is not fertile anymore, or due to any other condition that develops during the marriage that makes having children impossible, the couple may still have sex because of the bonding of the couple with each other in the marital embrace remains a bonding factor and an issue of the health of the marriage.

Again, masturbation is a grave sin no matter what. There is no circumstance in a marriage that permits masturbation. Even if one of the spouses can no longer have intercourse, masturbation is still a sin. In such a case, sexual intercourse will just not be a part of that marriage any longer.

By the way, a person who is single and cannot have intercourse, in a permanent state of impotence, cannot get married since the marriage can never be consummated. If permanent impotence takes place after the couple are already married, then they will have to live without that aspect of the marital embrace as husband and wife.

God bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below:
Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum.
Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum
Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum
Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum
Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum