Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
---|---|---|
***** sexuallity WARNING!! Adult Content |
bill | Wednesday, June 24, 2009 |
Question: I am a happily married catholic, I love being intimate with my wife. Sometimes my wife and I like to pleasure each other by caress or even orally during the day, when we may not have the time to actually have complete sex with male ejaculation. I know that I can"t ejaculate unless I am in her, but is it ok to fool around so to speek (foreplay) if it will be perhaps many houres before the kids go to sleep and we have time to have sex. Also along the same lines can I with mutual consent stimulate my wife to the point of orgasm but not actually have sex with ejaculation until the end of the day, 3- 8 houres later. |
||
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM
***** Dear Bill: There are differing opinions on this question by various theologians, but the Church, to my knowledge teaches specifically only that: 2366 Fecundity is a gift, an end of marriage, for conjugal love naturally tends to be fruitful. A child does not come from outside as something added on to the mutual love of the spouses, but springs from the very heart of that mutual giving, as its fruit and fulfillment. So the Church, which is "on the side of life," teaches that "it is necessary that each and every marriage act remain ordered per se to the procreation of human life." "This particular doctrine, expounded on numerous occasions by the Magisterium, is based on the inseparable connection, established by God, which man on his own initiative may not break, between the unitive significance and the procreative significance which are both inherent to the marriage act." The "marriage act" here is speaking of intercourse. Thus, sexual play that is not intercourse, and for which the man does not ejaculate, would appear to be permissible as long as the non-coital sexual play is not a replacement for intercourse with the intent of improperly avoiding pregnancy, or to avoid the normal bonding of the husband and wife. If sex is for sex sake, even within marriage, then we have a problem. The marital embrace is a mutual self-giving. Sex merely for pleasure, for self-gratification, without that mutual self-giving of the spouses to each other violates the chastity proper to marriage. While the wife may climax outside of intercourse, even in the scenario you ask about, the primary danger of sex play that does not end in intercourse is that the man may also climax. Thus, while it may be permitted to have sex play that does not end in intercourse in the case you state, it may not be prudent. St. Paul teaches that even it something is allowable, it is not always prudent or beneficial. That prudence must be decided by you and your wife making sure your conscience is clear and the intent is appropriate. God Bless, Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum
|