Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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a clarification on divorce | Jim | Friday, June 5, 2009 |
Question: Dear Brother |
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Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM
Dear Jim: As I understand it, the answer is yes. The marriage of the unbaptized person was never sacramental. So as long as there was a civil divorce, a Catholic may marry this person, though not advisable. The usual conditions apply of the Catholic party promising that nothing will impair the ability to practice the faith, and that the children will be raised Catholic. As for the second question about needing a divorce before petition for nullity is filed, a decree of nullity cannot be issued if there is still a legal contract of marriage between the couple. The person must be legally free either through a civil annulment or divorce. As long as the civil marriage exists it is presumed that it is Sacramental between two baptized persons. Investigating evidence to the contrary can only be done after the couple's relationship is over and no legal bond exists anymore. God Bless, Footer Notes: This forum is for general questions on the faith. See specific Topic Forums below: Spiritual Warfare, demons, the occult go to our Spiritul Warfare Q&S Forum. Liturgy Questions go to our Liturgy and Liturgical Law Q&A Forum Liturgy of the Hours (Divine Office) Questions go to our Divine Office Q&A Forum Defenfing the Faith Questions go to our Defending the Faith Q&A Forum Church History Questions go to our Church History Q&A Forum
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