Dear Anthony:

Forgive my long delay in responding.

Well, whoever suggested this interpretation of Luke 11:27-28 is blinded by their anti-Catholic bigotry.

To begin with, this passage says nothing about the subject of communion of the saints (praying to Mary).

It appears that this person is suggesting that Mary was not blessed or her blessed state is depreciated. Such an interpretation contradicts what Luke write in Chapter 1 where is says that Mary is blessed a number of times and that she is blessed above all women and will be honored by all generations.

Like most "bible Christians", they tend to bible ignorant and to interpret according to their already perceived ideas.

In this passage, quoting from the Navarre Bible Commentary, Jesus in "replying this way...is not rejecting the warm praise this good lady renders to his Mother; he accepts it and goes further, explaining that Mary is blessed particularly because she has been good and faithful in putting the word of God into practice. 'It was a compliment to his Mother on her fiat, her 'let it be done' (Luke 1:38. She lived it sincerely, unstintingly, fulfilling its every consequence, but never amid fanfare, rather in the hidden and silent sacrifice each day'".

This passage is further testimony of the blessed nature of Mary, which confirms her special place in Jesus' life, and in ours as a model of how to be a Christian.

This passage has nothing whatsoever to do with the subject of praying to her, but confirms her saintly status. After all, we only pray to Saints. Thus, in a small way, this passage actually support the doctrine of Communion of the Saints.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary