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Question Title Posted By Question Date
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marital embrace
WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.

Mike Monday, September 15, 2008

Question:

Can you clarify answer two below. I think I understand, but perhaps it is the way you worded the answer.

My intention is to bring my wife to orgasm several times during foreplay during one continual love making session before we complete the marital act of vaginal intercourse. Perhaps I am reading too much into your answer. My difficulty may be in thinking that there is a difference between her reaching orgasm accidentally one or more times and my intentionally bringing her to orgasm several times. All of our lovemaking sessions always end in vaginal intercourse. Perhaps I am just splitting hairs here.

Also, is it Ok if she has an orgasm after intercourse, again if it is in the context of one continual lovemaking session?

Thanks and God bless. Mike.

As to Question two , It is no sin for the woman to orgasm during foreplay. In fact, it is perfectly permissible for her to orgasm multiple times during foreplay. This is NOT masturbation when it is part of the normal foreplay of marital sex. If a person intends to masturbate their spouse, which is an intention to bring to orgasm without the intention and outside of the context of mutual foreplay that leads to intercourse, then we may have a problem.

As to Question three, Oral sex. Husband to wife, or wife to husband, is also permitted AS LONG AS the man does not ejaculate. While the woman can have as many orgasms as she can outside of intercourse, the man must never orgasm, that is ejaculate, except in the vagina. So, oral sex is permissible if mutually agreed upon as long as the man does not ejaculate anywhere except in his wife’s vagina.



Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM

*****
WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.

Dear Mike:

It is permissible for the husband to deliberately help his wife have multiple orgasms before, during, and after intercourse as part of the caresses during love-making.

To make this point clear, caressing your wife to orgasm is NOT masturbation. That is part of foreplay or afterplay of love-making.

The concept of masturbating each other can be possible only in the sense of the couple caressing each other to orgasm just to be doing it, using the partner as a sex toy, and not love-making which is a mutual self-giving of each other to the spouse. Otherwise Masturbation is, according to the Catechism:

2352 By masturbation is to be understood the deliberate stimulation of the genital organs in order to derive sexual pleasure. "Both the Magisterium of the Church, in the course of a constant tradition, and the moral sense of the faithful have been in no doubt and have firmly maintained that masturbation is an intrinsically and gravely disordered action." "The deliberate use of the sexual faculty, for whatever reason, outside of marriage is essentially contrary to its purpose." For here sexual pleasure is sought outside of "the sexual relationship which is demanded by the moral order and in which the total meaning of mutual self-giving and human procreation in the context of true love is achieved."

It is permissible, I believe, when it is necessary to achieve orgasm, for a woman to participate with her husband in caresses on herself if this is really needed.

It is not permissible, however, for example, for the woman to bring herself to orgasm after intercourse because her husband does his thing and turns over and goes to sleep. This would be masturbation. It might be understandable because of the selfishness of her husband, but it is morally wrong.

I hope this clarifies.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary

 

 


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