Question Title | Posted By | Question Date |
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Matthew 12:30 vs. Mark 9:40 | eskor | Tuesday, October 2, 2012 |
Question: Passages like Mark 9:38-40 and Numbers 11:25-29 have been interpreted by many Catholics to mean that Christ is not in favor of the Catholic Churches insistence on being exclusive and separate from other Christian churches and groups. Can you please explain these passages especially in the light of Matthew 12:30 which seems to contradict Mark 9:40. |
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Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OMSM(r)
Dear Eskor: Well let us first post the passages of Scripture that you reference:
None of these passages contradict each other, nor do any of these passages teach or even refer to the singular primacy of the Catholic Church. If there are Catholics out there who suggest that these passages show that "Christ is not in favor of the Catholic Churches insistence on being exclusive and separate from other Christian churches and groups" such Catholics are not only wrong, but stupidly wrong, are ignorant of their faith, and most importantly are risking their souls because what they are suggesting is a heresy. In Matthew 16:18-19, when Jesus renamed Simon to Peter (actually to "Kepha" in Aramaic, which means "rock", and which is the language Jesus actually spoke), and said that Peter (Kepha) would be the rock (kepha) upon which He would build his Church and would hold the keys of the kingdom, He was quoting from Isaiah 22:21-24. The passage is Isaiah 22 is talking about the succession of the office of Prime Minister, which is what the Pope is. The King (Jesus) has his prime minister who is give the keys of the kingdom (a sign of authority) to lock or open, that is, to make decisions on issues brought before the Prime Minister. This prime minister is even called a "father" to the nation (church) in verse 21. The word Pope is merely an English transliteration of the Greek, Pateras, and the Latin, pater, and the Italian, papa. All these terms mean father. Pope means Father. Anywhere you see in an English bible the word father, that will be papa in an Italian language Bible, which is transliterated into the English "Pope." Thus, the passages in Matthew 16, backed up by the passages in Isaiah 22, proves without any doubt or question to anyone who is intellectually honest that Peter was made the first Pope of the New Covenant. Peter was not the first Pope that God ever appointed, however. There has always been a Prime Minister on the earth. During the Mosaic Covenant, the Prime Minister to God's people was Moses and his successors. Jesus actually mentions the Mosaic Magisterium in Matthew 23:2. Jesus said, "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses' seat (chair); so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice." The scribes and pharisees were the successors of Moses. Even though these men had become hypocrites, Jesus ordered his disciples to obey them when they sat on the "Chair of Moses." "Chair" is another sign for authority. This is interesting because even though the scribes and pharisees were personally wrong about things, when they sat in the Chair of Moses they were to be obeyed, which implies that when sitting in the Chair they not only had authority that must be obeyed, but their teaching was protected from error. This is a foreshadowing of the Catholic Dogma on the infallibility of the Pope when speaking ex cathedra, which means, "from the Chair." Since Jesus established one Church, not many Churches, and St. Paul condemned denominationalism in 1 Corinthians 1:10-15, and the definition of that Church to which He established was one that was loyal and unified under His appointed Prime Minster, the Pope, the Supreme Papa, how could these passages in question be referring to Jesus not approving of the Catholic Church claiming singular primacy? These Catholics you speak of are utterly ignorant of the Bible and the teachings of their supposed faith; or they are heretics and know what they are doing in which case they risk their souls to hell. Now to the correct interpretation of the Bible passages you post: 1) Numbers 11:25-29 According to the Navarre Bible Commentary, one of the best commentaries in print, this passage is referring to God as "the source of the spirit and he can give it to whomever he chooses, irrespective of human qualification." Moses himself was not qualified to the job of leading the Jews out of Egypt. Moses as a stutterer and because of the Moses suggested to God that he choose Aaron, his brother, who was a eloquent speaker, to be the person to lead the Jews to the Promised Land. God does not always choose those who are equipped for the job; rather he equips those whom he chooses. God certainly can choose to whom He will give his spirit, even if that person is not a Jew. The fact that God can do this if he pleases does not take away anything from the Covenant he made with Israel. The Jews were still the Chosen People. The same goes for the Church today. God can send the Holy Spirit to whom he pleases. That does not invalidate the Church and the fact that the Catholic Church is the only True Church in the fullness of the Faith established personally by Christ and built upon the leadership of his chosen Prime Minster and his successors. 2) Mark 9:38-40 The correct interpretation here is similar to that for the passage in Numbers. The Navarre Bible Commentary explains:
For example, the apostolate of feeding the poor. This is a "good" regardless of who does it. The Freemasons offer Thanksgiving dinner to the poor. While the Freemasons hold notions that are evil, and any Catholic who joins the Freemasons is in mortal sin and barred from the Sacraments, this does not depreciate the fact that feeding the poor is a good and Godly activity. Good is good, no matter who performs the good. Truth is truth no matter who speaks it. If Hitler were to say that 2+2=4 he would be correct and truthful regardless of the fact that he was a egomaniacal murderous psychopath. 3) Matthew 12:30 Again this passage is similar to the others. Here, Jesus is saying that "those who are not united to Jesus through faith, hope, and charity, are against him—and therefore they are on the side of the devil, Jesus' enemy." Those who are not so united are against Christ, even it they are Catholic or Protestant Christians. The Faith that Jesus refers to is the Catholic Faith, but that faith of Protestant Christians is still valid in as far as it is consistent with the Catholic Church. Protestants and Catholics are in about 95% agreement. The problem is that Protestants have a Readers Digest version of the faith, with some heretical notions included from their founders. Nevertheless, these non-Catholic Christians are "for" Jesus, albeit in an abridged understanding of the faith. As with the Mark passage, good is good no matter who performs it, and like the Numbers passage, God can bring His Holy Spirit upon whom he pleases. These passage compliment each other and perfectly fit Catholic teaching about the Catholic Church and her relationship with non-Catholic Christians and even non-Christian. To review that, see the Catechism nos. 811-870. God Bless, |