Ask a Question - or - Return to the Defending the Faith Forum Index

Question Title	Posted By	Question Date
the definate article John 1:1	George	Tuesday, April 13, 2010
Question: I have come across the argument that in John 1:1 the Jehovahs have translated part of the this "the Word was God" differently. Namely John didn't use the definate article form of Theos for God (ho theos). I have read other apologetics where they state in Kione it is not necessary as it is a predicate nominative. But other apologetics state that there are other exceptions to this Kione rule so it may not convince them. Does this translation issue exist only in the Jehovah's New World Bible translation or do Catholic translations use this indefinate article as well. Overall what do we tell these people? Thank you for your time, and God Bless.
Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM Dear George: Sorry for the delay in responding. We have to remember that Jehovah Witness are not Christian. They do not believe in the Trinity, believe that Jesus was merely human on earth, and an angel in heaven, and many other aberrations. Thus, the unique Bible they use has to be bastardized to fit their heretical doctrines. In John 1:1 the JW cannot translate the verse accurately as it would fly in the face of their notion that Jesus was not divine. An article from Catholic Answers summarizes this point: It will come as no surprise to learn that the Witnesses do not believe Jesus Christ is divine. He isn’t God in their view. To support this theory, they appeal to their own rendering of John 1:1: "In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." They use the lower-case "g" to show that Christ is merely a creature, even if the most exalted creature. ... The translation given by the Witnesses simply isn’t supported by the Greek. One time two Jehovah Witness evangelists knocked on my door. I was busy and really could not entertain them at that moment, but I talk to them at the door for a few minutes. I asked them if they could tell me who translated their version of the Bible, the New World Translation. They could not tell me. So I told them that if they could get me a list of the translators I would talk to them. Of all the translations of the Bible, the Jehovah Witness' New World Translation is the only one that does not publish the names and credentials of its translators. I imagine that if one reason might be that the translators are not qualified. I am not a fluent in Greek and certainly am not a Greek grammarian, but as best as I can render the Greek and the grammar here, first John 1:1 in Latin (the operative phrase, "and the Word was God" in bold): In principio erat Verbum, et Verbum erat apud Deum, et Deus erat Verbum et = and Deus = God erat = was Verbum = Word The Greek: ᾿Εν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος. καὶ (kai)= and Θεὸς (theos) = God ἦν (eimi) = exist (am) ὁ (ho) = the definite article "the" in the masculine gender Λόγος (logos) = word There is no justification for Jehovah Witness translation of the phrase as "and the Word was a god". Such a translation is simply not supported by the Greek or the Latin and is bastardization rendered obviously to support their heresy. As to what to tell them? Well, that the Greek does not support their view. Remember though that these people are thoroughly intrenched in their view, as with any cult, even with similarities with brainwashing. Therefore, debate with them is generally not productive. I would recommend two booklets published by San Juan Catholic Seminars that can help you to find reasonable ways to respond to Jehovah Witness: Beginning Apologetics 2: How to Answer Jehovah's Witnesses and Mormons Beginning Apologetics 2.5: Yes! You Should Believe in the Trinity: How to Answer Jehovah's Witnesses God Bless, Bro. Ignatius Mary

Question Title

Posted By

Question Date

the definate article John 1:1

George

Tuesday, April 13, 2010

Question:

I have come across the argument that in John 1:1 the Jehovahs have translated part of the this "the Word was God" differently. Namely John didn't use the definate article form of Theos for God (ho theos). I have read other apologetics where they state in Kione it is not necessary as it is a predicate nominative. But other apologetics state that there are other exceptions to this Kione rule so it may not convince them.

Does this translation issue exist only in the Jehovah's New World Bible translation or do Catholic translations use this indefinate article as well.

Overall what do we tell these people? Thank you for your time, and God Bless.

Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM

Dear George:

Sorry for the delay in responding.

We have to remember that Jehovah Witness are not Christian. They do not believe in the Trinity, believe that Jesus was merely human on earth, and an angel in heaven, and many other aberrations.

Thus, the unique Bible they use has to be bastardized to fit their heretical doctrines. In John 1:1 the JW cannot translate the verse accurately as it would fly in the face of their notion that Jesus was not divine.

An article from Catholic Answers summarizes this point:

It will come as no surprise to learn that the Witnesses do not believe Jesus Christ is divine. He isn’t God in their view. To support this theory, they appeal to their own rendering of John 1:1: "In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." They use the lower-case "g" to show that Christ is merely a creature, even if the most exalted creature. ... The translation given by the Witnesses simply isn’t supported by the Greek.

One time two Jehovah Witness evangelists knocked on my door. I was busy and really could not entertain them at that moment, but I talk to them at the door for a few minutes.

I asked them if they could tell me who translated their version of the Bible, the New World Translation. They could not tell me. So I told them that if they could get me a list of the translators I would talk to them.

Of all the translations of the Bible, the Jehovah Witness' New World Translation is the only one that does not publish the names and credentials of its translators. I imagine that if one reason might be that the translators are not qualified.

I am not a fluent in Greek and certainly am not a Greek grammarian, but as best as I can render the Greek and the grammar here, first John 1:1 in Latin (the operative phrase, "and the Word was God" in bold):

In principio erat Verbum, et Verbum erat apud Deum, et Deus erat Verbum

et = and
Deus = God
erat = was
Verbum = Word

The Greek:

᾿Εν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

καὶ (kai)= and
Θεὸς (theos) = God
ἦν (eimi) = exist (am)
ὁ (ho) = the definite article "the" in the masculine gender
Λόγος (logos) = word

There is no justification for Jehovah Witness translation of the phrase as "and the Word was a god". Such a translation is simply not supported by the Greek or the Latin and is bastardization rendered obviously to support their heresy.

As to what to tell them? Well, that the Greek does not support their view. Remember though that these people are thoroughly intrenched in their view, as with any cult, even with similarities with brainwashing. Therefore, debate with them is generally not productive. I would recommend two booklets published by San Juan Catholic Seminars that can help you to find reasonable ways to respond to Jehovah Witness:

Beginning Apologetics 2: How to Answer Jehovah's Witnesses and Mormons

Beginning Apologetics 2.5: Yes! You Should Believe in the Trinity: How to Answer Jehovah's Witnesses

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary