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Question Title Posted By Question Date
Immaculate Conception Patrick Friday, November 19, 2004

Question:

I'm sure you feel like you've beaten the Immaculate Conception questions in the ground, but if you don't mind I have a couple specific questions I did not find in a search of past questions:

1) Some Protestant folk I talk to site that "full of grace" is not actually in the greeting of Mary by the Angel in their bible. It appears to be a difference in translation from the Greek manuscripts. What response could I provide to this charge.

2) Acts 6:8 says "Now Stephen, a man full of God's grace and power, did great wonders and miraculous signs among the people." This would indicate that Stephen (and possibly others) are also full of Grace. It seems to me that it is a question of timing. In other words, Mary was told by the angel that she was full of grace and Stephen was called full of grace only after he accepted Jesus. What say you?



Question Answered by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM+


Dear Patrick:

On Question #1: Well those Protestant folk would be wrong. We must remember that the Bible was not written in English. Thus regardless of whether an English translation translates "full of grace" or "highly favored one" the original Greek tells the real story.

The Greek word in the passage of Luke 1:28 is charitoo (make accepted, honor, highly favored, grace) which is derived from charis (grace). This refers to the great honor of being "full of grace", a condition that can also apply to regular Christians (Eph. 1:6).  Even the esteemed Evangelical Protestant Ryrie Study Bible admits and makes a footnote saying the "highly favored" means "full of grace".

While any of us can experience of fullness in grace, we do not keep that character long -- thus the need for the Sacrament of Confession. The word is used differently in Luke 1:28 than it is in the characterization of Eph. 1:6. The angel does not characterize Mary as being in a state of fullness of grace, rather he makes this comment as if it was Mary's name (it is used as a greeting identifying her) -- she is not just in a state of fullness of grace, she is the embodiment of fullness in grace. This is further affirmed by the Angel's next words, the Lord is with you. Again, this is not a mere greeting as would be the Lord BE with you, but a declaration of the ontological reality of who Mary is.

To understand this passage one must also understand the nature of the sacred and by that realize that Mary HAD to be immaculately conceived (a fact taught by the Church Fathers). I have written about that before. To be the Ark of the New Covenant she had to be a perfect vessel, not 99%, but 100% perfect. Otherwise she would not qualify as the Ark of the New Covenant.

That is what Luke 1:28 is affirming -- the Immaculate Conception.

On Question #2: The Greek word in the passage of Acts 6:8 is pistis (persuasion, conviction, belief, faith). Stephen is full of faith. This is not the same word or the same meaning as in Luke 1:28.

God bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary