Bro. Ignatius, in response to your reply on a recent post, is it true as you stated that 'until' 'is not used in the Bible the same way it is used in today's English';'that it does not imply the action later, which is the modern sense of the term'? Luke 1:20 (just picked at random from many examples) says that Zechariah 'shalt be dumb, and unable to speak until the day that these things shall be performed.' If Luke didn't record later when Zechariah spoke, is the reader to infer that he wouldn't?

Regarding Michal, Mary was pregnant till she gave birth. Are we to assume she stopped being pregnant after she gave birth in the same way we could assume that Michal gave birth after she died? I understand what the questioner was saying.

Also, I read the refutation by Jerome against Helvidius on your link. Helvidius brought forth the same objection to perpetual virginity by appealing to the common meaning of the word ‘until’; then why do you think that there is a ‘modern sense’ of the term when it meant the same thing to common readers in the time of Jerome? If the New American Bible translates Matt 1:25 better, then we could make no sense whatsoever of Jerome's reply to Helvidius, for Jerome spends effort on dealing with the word 'until'. (Jerome neglected to point out that 1Cor15:25-'For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.' refers to Psalm 110:1 'The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.' In a sense, Jesus' reign 'from heaven' will be 'till he hath put all enemies under his feet.' And when he comes from heaven, he will reign from the earth as the creed teaches.